1.What is the correct order for the OSI model? 

P=Presentation, S=Session, D=Datalink, Ph=Physical, T=Transport, A= Application, N=Network 

A. P S A PH D N T 
B. A P S T N D PH 
C. PH D N T A S P 
D. P S A T N D PH 

Answer B. It is crucial you not only memorize this and know what each layer does. 

2. What is encapsulation? 

A. Putting the header on an incoming frame 
B. Putting a header on an incoming segment 
C. Putting a header on an outgoing frame 
D. Putting a header on an outgoing bit 

Answer C. This also includes trailers and can be put on segments, packets, and frames. 

3. Which layer is most concerned with user applications? 

A. Application 
B. Presentation 
C. Network 
D. Physical 

Answer A.  

4. Which of the following is de-encapsulation? 

A. Stripping the header from a frame 
B. Putting a header on a segment 
C. Putting a header on a frame 
D. Stripping a frame from a link 

Answer A. This also includes trailers as in question 2. 

5. What layer converts data into segments? 

A. Application 
B. Presentation 
C. Transport 
D. Physical 

Answer C.  

6. What layer converts data into Packets? 

A. Network 
B. Application 
C. Physical 
D. Data Link 

Answer A. 

7. What layer converts data into Frames? 

A. Application 
B. Physical 
C. Data Link 
D. Transport 

Answer C.  

8. What layer converts data into bits? 

A. Application 
B. Session 
C. Data Link 
D. Physical 

Answer D. All of the layers need to convert data into something that they can pass down to the next level, with the exception of the Application layer which hands data to the Presentation layer. The Presentation layer encrypts, and compresses before sending it to the Session layer for it s first conversion. 

9. Which layer is most concerned with getting data from the beginning to the final destination? 
A. Application 
B. Presentation 
C. Session 
D. Transport 

Answer D. The transport layer is most concerned with reliable transportation from one end to the other. 

10. Which of the following is not a part of the Session layer? 

A. Establishing a session 
B. Ensuring error free segments 
C. Ending a session 
D. Keeping the sender and receiver from sending a message at the same time 

Answer B. That is the job of the Transport layer. 

11. Which of the following is not a job for the presentation layer? Choose 2 

A. Data representation 
B. Compression 
C. Dialog management 
D. Transmission 
E. Encryption 

Answer C D. C is handled by the session layer, and D is handled by the Transport layer 

12. What does Peer to Peer communication involve? 

A. Each layer communication with the layer below it 
B. Each layer communication with layer above it 
C. Each layer communicating with adjacent layer in another system 
D. Each layer communication with it s corresponding layer in another system 

Answer D. Answer C sounds correct also, but adjacent and corresponding are two different things. The session layer can only communicate with the session layer in another system for example. 

13. Why does the industry use a layered model? Choose all correct 

20. Which of the following are examples of layer 3 addressing? 

A. 165.33.4.34 
B. AA77:3827:EF54 
C. HHHH:hg:7654 
D. 76 

Answer A B. The first is a TCPIP address and the second is an IPX address 

21. What is considered Layer 3 addressing? 

A. Data Link Layer 
B. Network Layer 
C. Application Layer 
D. None of these 

Answer B. Physical is Layer 1, then data link, and then Network. This is the same layer that routers are on. 

22. What layer are Bridges on? 

A. Data Link 
B. Physical 
C. Application 
D. Transport 

Answer A. Bridges segment networks but are not able to determine addresses like the network layer does. 

23. Repeaters are on what layer? 

A. Transport 
B. Session 
C. Physical 
D. Application 

Answer C. All repeaters can do is boost a signal. An active hub is a good example of a repeater. A switching hub is a good example of layer 3 addressing, since switches go by network addresses and IPX addresses rather than just boost signals. Bridges can only read mac addresses, and not the full IPX or TCPIP addresses. 

24. Which of the following are considered routing protocols? 

A. OSPF 
B. IP 
C. IPX 
D. EIGRP 
E. Token Ring 

Answer A D. Answers B and C are routed protocols, whereas A and D are the protocols that do the routing. This is easily confused. You can remember it by thinking that the routing protocols that haul the routed protocols are like a tug ship pulling a barge. The barge is full of data. 

25. Which two of the following are considered connection oriented communication? 

A. Setup and maintenance procedures are performed to ensure message delievery 
B. A physical circuit exists between two communicating devices 
C. It is a best effort type of communication 
D. A virtual connection exists between the two 

Answer A D. B is not a necessity, and C is not accurate. TCP is connection oriented and UDP is not. 

26. Which of the following are not WAN protocols? Choose 2 

A. Frame Relay 
B. ATM 
C. Ethernet 
D. FDDI 
E. ISDN 

Answer C D. Ethernet and FDDI are LAN protocols. 

27. Which of the following will allow you to view NVRAM s contents? 

A. show configuration 
B. show protocols 
C. show version 
D. show running-config 
E. show startup-config 

Answer A E. These show the backup configuration stored in NVRAM. The other anwsers allow youto view RAM. 

28. Which of the following contains the OS image? 

A. Flash 
B. NVRAM 
C. RAM 
D. Interfaces 

Answer A. ROM will be used if Flash is unavailable. NVRAM is the backup configuration, and RAM is the active configuration 

29. Which of the following indicates the router is in privilege mode? 

A. Router# 
B. Router> 
C.  
Router- 
D. Router* 

Answer A. Answer B shows the router in user mode. 

30. What does "show cdp neighbors" not show? Neighbors_________ 

A. device id 
B. hardware platform 
C. ios version 
D. port type and number 

Answer C. 

31. Which of the following will show you the clock? 

A. cl? 
B. Cl ? 
C. Clock? 
D. Clock ? 

Answer D. By typing this the router will finish the command and show the clock. 

32. CDP operates at which layer? 

A. Transport 
B. Network 
C. Data link 
D. Physical 

Answer C. CDP allows a network device to exchange frames with other directly connected networked devices. 

33. Which command does not show two devices are not routing packets between them successfully? 

A. ping  
B. show interface 
C. trace 
D. telnet 

Answer A C D. With these commands you can tell whether or not you have communication. Show interface just verifies there is a connection 

34. What keystrokes shows the possible commands in privilege mode? 

A. help 
B. h 
C. ctrl+h 
D. ? 

Answer D. Answers A and B will give a brief description when typed, and C is not valid. 

35. Which two items contain versions of the router s configuration file? 

A. flash 
B. nvram 
C. ram 
D. rom 

Answer B C. A and D contain the OS. 

36. Which of the following commands will allow youto review the contents of RAM? 

A. show configuration 
B. show protocols 
C. show version 
D. show running-config 
E. show startup-config 

Answer B C D. A and D allow you to see NVRAM. 

37. Which of the following will allow you to add, modify, or delete commands in the startup configuration file? 

A. show startup-config 
B. show running-config 
C. configure terminal 
D. configure memory 

Answer D. Answer C allows you to change items in the running configuration file 

38. Which command would be used to restore a configuration file to RAM? 
________TFTP running-config 

A. router#copy 
B. router>copy 
C. router*copy 
D. router^copy 

Answer A. You must be in privilege mode when executing this, which is why you see the # sign. 

39. Which of the following commands will display the running configuration file to a terminal? 

A. show running-config 
B. show router-config 
C. router#show flash 
D. router>show version 

Answer A. It can only be shown in privilege mode. 

40. If you need to copy the currently executing configuration file into NVRAM, which command would you use? 

A. router#copy startup-config running-config 
B. router#copy startup-config TFTP 
C. router#copy running-config startup-config 
D. router>copy startup-config running-config 

Answer C. Answers ABC show that the router is in privilege mode which is necessary to complete this action, but only C shows the correct syntax.

41 Which of the following commands would not set a password on a Cisco router? 

A. router(config)#enable secret 
B. router(config-line)#password test 
C. router(config)#service encryption password 
D. router(config)#enable password 

Answer C. This command is used to encrypt passwords in configuration files. 

42. Which of the following would cause a router to boot into the initial configuration dialog after powering has cycled? 

A. Someone had copied the startup configuration file in a TFTP server 
B. The running configuration file was copied to the startup configuration file 
C. It is the first time router has ever been turned on 
D. The write erase command was executed immediately before powering down the router. 

Answer C and D. These two scenarios describe what will happen when the router needs to use NVRAM to boot if it cannot find the configuration file. 

43. What would cause a router to boot from ROM? 

A. 0x3202 
B. 0x2302 
C. 0x2101 
D. 0x2103 

Answer C. A configuration register of 1 or 0 will cause the router to boot from ROM. 

44. Where does the running config file exist? 

A. NVRAM 
B. ROM 
C. RAM 
D. Flash 

Answer C. This file is erased if the router is reloaded or rebooted. 

45. How do you back up a router? 

A. router#copy running-config startup-configuration 
B. router(config)#copy TFTP flash 
C. router#copy flash TFTP 
D. router#copy flash NVRAM 

Answer C. You can copy the file to a TFTP server or other storage device. 

46. Which of the following is not valid? 

A. router>show version 
B. router#show running-config 
C. router#show startup-config 
D. router#show RAM 

Answer D. 

47. Which of the following are basic router functions? 

A. Packet switching 
B. Packet filtering 
C. Path determination 
D. Rapid convergence  

Answer A and C. Packets get switched once they are determined by the router where to go. 

48. Which of the following is not an interior routing protocol? 

A. RIP 
B. IGRP 
C. OSPF 
D. BGP 

Answer D. BGP is an exterior routing protocol designed to communicate between autonomous systems. 

49. Which of the following routing protocols communicate router information by sending the state of it s links to all routers in it s domain? 

A. BGP 
B. RIP 
C. IGRP 
D. OSPF 

Answer D. This is a "link state" routing protocol. RIP and IGRP are distance vector, and BGP communicates reachability between domains. 

50. What is a problem caused by distance vector routing protocols? 

A. Split horizon 
B. Route Poison 
C. Counting to infinity 
D. Max hop count 
E. Hold down timers 

Answer C. Answers ABDE are counter measures to the counting to infinity problem caused by distance vector protocols. 

51. What router command will display the routing protocol settings configured on a router? 

A. show protocol 
B. Show routing protocol 
C.Show ip protocol 
D. Show running-config 

Answer C. This also displays timers, neighbors, and next update info. 

52. What helps mitigate the problems with link state protocols? Choose 2 

A. Minimize router resource usage. 
B. Coordinate updates 
C. Minimum hop counts 
D. Distance vectoring 

Answer A B.  

53. Which router commands will enable RIP for 176.18.0.0? Choose 2 

A. router rip 
B. network 176.18.0.0 
C. network rip 
D. network rip 176.18.0.0 

Answer A B. Router rip enables rip. Answer B enable the router to advertise to other routers that it is available. You must be in the global configuration prompt. 

54. Which of the following is a disadvantage with the link state protocol? Choose 3 

A. hold down counters 
B. unsynchronized updates 
C. high network bandwidth usage 
D. high router resource usage 

Answer B C D. As link state packets flood the network, high network bandwidth can be a problem. 

55. Which of the following exist at the application layer of the TCPIP model? Choose 3 

A. SMTP 
B. FTP 
C. ICMP 
D. RIP 
E. IGRP 

Answer A B C. Answers D and E and routing protocols. 

56. Which of the following translate Fully Qualified Domain Names into IP addresses? 

A. Wins 
B. DNS 
C. SNMP 
D. TCP 

Answer B. 

57. Which of the following translate netbios names? 

A. Wins 
B. DNS 
C. SNMP 
D. TCP 

Answer A. Netbios names are the names of the computers specified in the identification tab in the network neighborhood properties. 

58. Which of the following is not done by TCP? 

A. Subnetting 
B. Error checking 
C. Sequencing 
D. Flow control 

Answer A.  

59. What does UDP and TCP have in common? Choose 2 

A. flow control 
B. error checking 
C. checksum 
D. provide destination and source port numbers 

Answer C D. UDP doesn t check for errors. 

60. Which of the following does the network layer do? Choose 2 

A. Packet switching 
B. Translating 
C. Path determination 
D. Convert signals to bits 

Answer A C.

61. Which of the following about ARP is true? Choose 2 

A. It is in the application layer 
B. It is in the network layer 
C. It maps mac addresses to ip addresses 
D. It maps ip addresses to mac addresses 

Answer B D. At the same layer are RARP, ICMP, and IP. RARP does what is in answer C. 

62. What protocol in the transport layer does not guarantee packet delivery? 

A. TCP 
B. IP 
C. IPX 
D. UDP 

Answer D. It does a best effort delivery, but is faster than TCP. 

63. Which of the following is a class A ip address? 

A. 10.14.16.12 
B. 127.0.0.1 
C. 172.15.42.34 
D. 209.123.32.212 

Answer A. 

64. Which of the following is a class B address?  

A. 10.14.16.12 
B. 127.0.0.1 
C. 172.15.42.34 
D. 209.123.32.212 

Answer C. 

65. Which of the following is a loop back address? 

A. 10.14.16.12 
B. 127.0.0.1 
C. 172.15.42.34 
D. 209.123.32.212 

Answer B. This is used to test to see if IP is configured and working properly on your pc, 

66. Which of the following is a non routable ip address? Choose 2 

A. 10.10.0.0 
B. 192.168.0.1 
C. 10.14.12.12 
D. 209.32.242 

Answer A B. These are good ip addresses to use behind a fire wall because they will never be addresses that will be used on the internet. 

67. Which of the following binary numbers represent 10.12.16.6 

A. 00001010.00001100.00010000.00000110 
B. 00011110.01010000.11001100.00110101 
C. 01101010.11001010.01000101.01010011 
D. 10001001.11010101.11111111.00000000 

Answer A. D cannot be used at all because you can t have all 1 s or 0 s 

68. What does the process of AND in do? 

A. It determines the value of an ip address 
B. It determines the port that TCP will use 
C. It determines if two ip addresses are on the same network 
D. It decides the ip address subnet 

Answer C. You do this by writing out all the ip addresses in binary and match them against their subnets. After you match up the 1 s and 0 s you can decide if they are on the same network by seeing if all the numbers match. Check the test info page for an example. 

69. Which of the following is a class C address? 

A. 124.12.13.44 
B. 210.24.56.76 
C. 127.0.0.1 
D. 10.14.12.16 

Answer B. An address above 191 for the first octet shows a class C address. 

70. Of the following address address 11100000.11000000.11110000.10000000, what is true? Choose 2 

A. It is a class C address 
B. It has a host id of 192.224.128 
C. It has a host id 128 
D. It is a class B address. 

Answer A B 

71. Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear-down of virtual circuits? 

A. Application 
B. Presentation 
C. Session 
D. Transport 

Answer D. 

72. Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems? 

A. Application 
B. Presentation 
C. Session 
D. Physical 

Answer C. 

73. Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax? 

A. application 
B. presentation 
C. session 
D. transport 

Answer B. 

74. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater? 

A. Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame. 
B. Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet.  
C. Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame  
D. Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame 

Answer D. Switches are network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI model. Switches use layer 2 addresses to filter the network 

75. How does the cut-through switching technique work?  

A. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface  
B. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets  
C. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses  
D. By using a Class II repeater in a collision domain  

Answer B. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching. 

76. How do switches use store and forward?  

A. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets  
B. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface  
C. By using a class II repeater in a collision domain  
D. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses  

Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Contrast with cut-through packet switching. 

77. Choose all of the following that are needed to support full-duplex Ethernet. 

A. Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link 
B. Full-duplex NIC cards  
C. Loop back and collision detection disabled  
D. Automatic detection of full-duplex operation by all connected stations  

Answer B C. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station. 

78. What two types of technology does 100BaseT use? 

A. Switching with 53-byte cells  
B. CSMA/CD 
C. IEEE 802.5  
D. 802.3u  

Answer B D. 100-Mbps baseband Fast Ethernet specification using UTP wiring. Like the 10BaseT technology on which it is based, 100BaseT sends link pulses over the network segment when no traffic is present. However, these link pulses contain more information than those used in 10BaseT. Based on the IEEE 802.3 standard.  

79. Choose all of the following that are advantages to segmenting with routers.  

A. Manageability  
B. Flow control 
C. Explicit packet lifetime control  
D. Multiple active paths  

Answers A, B, C, D. All of the above is correct. A router is a Network layer device that uses one or more metrics to determine the optimal path along which network traffic should be forwarded. Routers forward packets from one network to another based on network layer information

[1] [2] 下一页